![]() Ĭonsequently, joining oneself to a woman in sexual intercourse you are not married to is akin to marrying one woman, and committing adultery with someone else (becoming one flesh with a woman you are not married to). Biblically, theologically, it is when the two "become one flesh" Gen 2:24-it is precisely that in which true marriage consists (not mere betrothal, which pledges you in marriage). While perhaps one could argue that the intent of the writer was that Genesis 2:24 applied only to the relation between a man and his wife 1, Paul, himself a Pharisee, does not seem to interpret the Scripture to mean this.ġ One rabbinic commentary on Genesis 2:24 (by Nahmanides, 13th century) held this verse up as evidence that God intended men not to be promiscuous ( Oxford Jewish Study Bible, 1st ed., p.16n)įorgive me if this is unsatisfactory, but isn't it a lot simpler than these answers are making it seem?Ĭarnal union (sexul intercourse) is that which consummates and constitutes marriage in this culture. The Hebrew word can also simply mean "female" (e.g. The same is true of the Hebrew אִשָּׁה, which is translated as "woman" in Genesis 2:23 in the King James, but "wife" in verse 24. The word γυνή (in τὴν γυναῖκα αὐτοῦ) in Genesis does not necessarily mean "wife", but can also simply mean "woman". *What? know ye not that he which is joined to an harlot is one body? for two, saith he, shall be one flesh. Paul is quoting directly from the Greek Septuagint here: I'm not necessarily arguing that this passage isn't about extramarital sexual activity (though it may be) but I am saying that limiting the focus to only this strains the text and severely limits our understanding of the text. In order to make this passage merely about extramarital sexual activity you must first separate eliminate (or equate) prostitution and any extramarital sexual activity - even if it is not done for compensation - and you must seperate the idolotrous nature of prostitution as an act of worship from the sexual activity itself (something not done in that culture). In doing so, the implication is that this causes a syncretism which profanes God's "temple" a syncretism which the Old Testament went to geat lengths to prevent - blaming even the flood on religious mashups. This is pretty clear from the following verses in which Paul is calling the body a God's temple. Nearly all prostitution at this time was "sacred prostitution" and patronizing these prostitutes was considered a form of worship of the fertility gods and goddesses in Rome. Reducing Paul's comment to only sexuality and/or our modern perception of prostitution misses a large part of cultural context.Īt the time of Paul, Prostitution occurred almost exclusively through temples - generally to fertility gods and goddesses. Paul is not commenting on marriage as much as he is commenting on idolatry and syncretism. ![]() Those in Christ, have Christ in them, so to join to a harlot or prostitute is joining Christ to the same.īut he that is joined unto the Lord is one spirit.Īnd what agreement hath the temple of God with idols? for ye are the temple of the living God as God hath said, I will dwell in them, and walk in them and I will be their God, and they shall be my people. So now we see the joining of a man and a women inescapably resulting in both flesh being made one, lawful or not. What? know ye not that he which is joined to a harlot is one body? for two, saith he, shall be one flesh. As the branch cannot bear fruit of itself, except it abide in the vine no more can ye, except ye abide in me. Those who abide in Christ so also Christ abides in them John 15:4Ībide in me, and I in you. Know ye not that your bodies are the members of Christ? shall I then take the members of Christ, and make them the members of a harlot? God forbid. ![]() It is inherently created, that a man and women join themselves together in one flesh. In Genesis 2:24 YHWH does not say in any sort that "After a lawful ceremony, and receiving a government sponsored license for registration of marriage, the two are now one flesh". So now rather than seeing this as "carnal copulation" it becomes a matter of a fact. ![]() But Genesis 2:24 is pre-sin, pre-law, pre-condemnation. In your question you emphasize lawful marriage. Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh.
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